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[-] Tinidril@midwest.social 1 points 9 months ago* (last edited 9 months ago)

And what does the constitution say about who decides when someone has participated in an insurrection? Exact constitutional text please.

[-] FreakinSteve@lemmy.world 1 points 9 months ago

It's the constitution, not Webster's dictionary. It is not the Constitution's job to define every single word that is within the Constitution. Participating in an insurrection is participating in an insurrection, which is what happened on January 6th. The Constitution clearly states that anyone who does such is ineligible to hold office again. This is not complicated at all. What is happening is a slow coup

[-] Tinidril@midwest.social 1 points 9 months ago

Read your argument above then read this response again. You are arguing that the court is overriding what the constitution says, then arguing that it doesn't matter that the constitution says nothing on the subject. Your mind is a really weird place.

[-] FreakinSteve@lemmy.world 1 points 9 months ago
[-] Tinidril@midwest.social 1 points 9 months ago

What the fuck are you on about now? This has nothing to do with prosecuting Trump and his conspirators. You seem to have me pigeonholed as a Trump supporter or something. I'm commenting on a single ruling on a subject that is just as likely to damage Biden as Trump.

Republicans say Biden is guilty of insurrection for allowing illegal aliens across the border, and will happily remove him from every ballot they can because of it. It's absolute bullshit of course, but Republicans aren't shy about passing bullshit or ruling based on bullshit. If that shit show sounds great to you, then you go ahead and override the court and send it to the states.

[-] FreakinSteve@lemmy.world 1 points 9 months ago* (last edited 9 months ago)

According to your very own interpretation with this question there is no such thing as a crime because every time a crime is committed someone has to step in and define what a crime is. We can't say a victim was murdered because there's no one to determine what a murder is. Fraud and larceny cannot possibly be crimes because the Constitution nor the Senate have appointed someone to define what larceny and fraud is.

Do you not see how psychotic resorting to such ridiculous semantics are?

Why is everyone so desperate to back up the SCOTUS claim that 'there is no law, therefore there can be no disorder'?

It's not even a "dogs can't play basketball!" ruling; it's a "there are no dogs" ruling.

[-] Tinidril@midwest.social 1 points 9 months ago

Are you really not aware that one of the primary jobs of Congress is to literally define what a crime is? That's what laws are. There is literally a statute (several actually) passed by Congress that does define what murder, fraud, and larceny are. That's the cornerstone of due process. A crime isn't a crime unless there is a law being broken. You have failed your constitution test.

this post was submitted on 04 Mar 2024
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