234
you are viewing a single comment's thread
view the rest of the comments
view the rest of the comments
this post was submitted on 26 Dec 2024
234 points (98.8% liked)
Asklemmy
44207 readers
1156 users here now
A loosely moderated place to ask open-ended questions
Search asklemmy ๐
If your post meets the following criteria, it's welcome here!
- Open-ended question
- Not offensive: at this point, we do not have the bandwidth to moderate overtly political discussions. Assume best intent and be excellent to each other.
- Not regarding using or support for Lemmy: context, see the list of support communities and tools for finding communities below
- Not ad nauseam inducing: please make sure it is a question that would be new to most members
- An actual topic of discussion
Looking for support?
Looking for a community?
- Lemmyverse: community search
- sub.rehab: maps old subreddits to fediverse options, marks official as such
- !lemmy411@lemmy.ca: a community for finding communities
~Icon~ ~by~ ~@Double_A@discuss.tchncs.de~
founded 5 years ago
MODERATORS
No, the fact that a number is infinite and non-repeating doesn't mean that and since in order to disprove something you need only one example here it is: 0.1101001000100001000001... this is a number that goes 1 and then x times 0 with x incrementing. It is infinite and non-repeating, yet doesn't contain a single 2.
But didn't you just give a counterexample with an infinite number? OP only said something about finite numbers.
They were showing that another Infinite repeating sequence 0.1010010001... is infinite and non-repeating (like pi) but doesn't contain all finite numbers
You mean infinite and non- repeating?
This! Fixed it. Thanks!