198
you are viewing a single comment's thread
view the rest of the comments
view the rest of the comments
this post was submitted on 26 Dec 2024
198 points (98.5% liked)
Asklemmy
44173 readers
1926 users here now
A loosely moderated place to ask open-ended questions
If your post meets the following criteria, it's welcome here!
- Open-ended question
- Not offensive: at this point, we do not have the bandwidth to moderate overtly political discussions. Assume best intent and be excellent to each other.
- Not regarding using or support for Lemmy: context, see the list of support communities and tools for finding communities below
- Not ad nauseam inducing: please make sure it is a question that would be new to most members
- An actual topic of discussion
Looking for support?
Looking for a community?
- Lemmyverse: community search
- sub.rehab: maps old subreddits to fediverse options, marks official as such
- !lemmy411@lemmy.ca: a community for finding communities
~Icon~ ~by~ ~@Double_A@discuss.tchncs.de~
founded 5 years ago
MODERATORS
No, the fact that a number is infinite and non-repeating doesn't mean that and since in order to disprove something you need only one example here it is: 0.1101001000100001000001... this is a number that goes 1 and then x times 0 with x incrementing. It is infinite and non-repeating, yet doesn't contain a single 2.
This proves that an infinite, non-repeating number needn't contain any given finite numeric sequence, but it doesn't prove that an infinite, non-repeating number can't. This is not to say that Pi does contain all finite numeric sequences, just that this statement isn't sufficient to prove it can't.
you are absolutely right.
it just proves that even if Pi contains all finite sequences it's not "since it oa infinite and non-repeating"
That was quite an elegant proof
What about in the context of Pi?
Doesn't the sequence "01" repeat? Or am I misunderstanding the term.
A nonrepeating number does not mean that a sequence within that number never happens again, it means that the there is no point in the number where you can predict the numbers to follow by playing back a subset of the numbers before that point on repeat. So for 01 to be the "repeating pattern", the rest of the number at some point would have to be 010101010101010101... You can find the sequence "14" at digits 2 and 3, 104 and 105, 251 and 252, and 296 and 297 (I'm sure more places as well).
yeah, but non-repeating in terms of decimal numbers usually mean: you cannot write it as 0.(abc), which would mean 0.abcabcabcabc...
Wouldn’t binary ‘10’ be 2, which it does contain? I feel like that’s cheating, since binary is just a mode of interpreting information …all numbers, regardless of base, can be represented in binary.
They're not writing in binary. They're defining a base 10 number that is 0.11, followed by a single 0, then 1, then two 0s, then 1, then three 0s, then 1, and so on. The definition ensures that it never repeats, but because it only contains 1 and 0, it would never contain any sequence with the numbers 2 through 9.
And you can strongman this by first using the string 23456789 at the start. It does contain all base 10 digits but not 22.
Thanks for the consideration for my pronouns XD
he/him if it ever matters
But didn't you just give a counterexample with an infinite number? OP only said something about finite numbers.
They were showing that another Infinite repeating sequence 0.1010010001... is infinite and non-repeating (like pi) but doesn't contain all finite numbers
You mean infinite and non- repeating?
This! Fixed it. Thanks!
"2" is a finite sequence that doesn't exist in the example number