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this post was submitted on 26 Dec 2024
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Asklemmy
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No this does not work. Counter example can be found in the comments here of a non-repeating number that definitely does not contain all finite strings.
Edit: I think the confusion is about the word non-repeating. Non repeating does not mean a subsequence cannot repeat but that you cannot write the number as a rational or with a finite decimal representation. I.e. it's not 3.ba repeating. Where a is a finite sequence that repeats infinitely and b is a finite sequence.
Edit edit: another assumption you make is that pi does not go into a loop of some kind. You would need to prove that.
Are you talking about a different base/character set? I think every single person understands that.
See my other comment