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this post was submitted on 26 Dec 2024
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Asklemmy
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0.101001000100001000001 . . .
You can't prove that there isn't one somewhere
You can, it's literally the way the number is defined.
Defined where ?
It's implicitly defined here by its decimal form:
The definition of this number is that the number of 0s after each 1 is given by the total previous number of 1s in the sequence. That's why it can't contain 2 despite being infinite and non-repeating.
Might very well be :
0.101001000100001000001202002000200002000002 ...
Real life, is different from gamified questions asked in student exams.
Why couldn’t you?
Because you'd need to search through an infinite number of digits (unless you have access to the original formula)
Are you trying to say the answer to their question is no? Because if so, you're wrong, and if not I'm not sure what you're trying to say.
The conclusion does not follow from the premises, as evidenced by my counterexample. It could be the case that every finite string of digits appears in the decimal expansion of pi, but if that's the case, a proof would have to involve more properties than an infinite non-repeating decimal expansion. I would like to see your proof that every finite string of digits appears in the decimal expansion of pi.
Well that's just being pointlessly pedantic, obviously they fucking know that a repeating number of all zeros and ones doesn't have a two in it. This is pure reddit pedantry you're doing
It's a math proof. Chill.
Are you Pi?
Shit, opsec fail.